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Database Forum / DB2 Topics / January 2005

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create trigger -> invalidates stored procedure

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gnuoytr@rcn.com - 19 Jan 2005 18:07 GMT
V7.1/390

logically, the answer should be NO.  the question: does the act of
creating a trigger on a table invalidate a SP which doesn't
reference the table?  or, more generally, at what level does a
SP go invalid??  the database(schema), tablespace, etc.?  looked
in the on-line docs, but couldn't track down an answer to the
question.  rather be able to warn the folks that they'll need
to re-bind than have them surprised.

thanks,
robert
Serge Rielau - 19 Jan 2005 21:58 GMT
> V7.1/390
>
[quoted text clipped - 8 lines]
> thanks,
> robert

Could it be that the trigger subject table is affected indirectly
through an RI relationship in the proc?

Cheers
Serge

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Serge Rielau
DB2 SQL Compiler Development
IBM Toronto Lab

gnuoytr@rcn.com - 20 Jan 2005 00:54 GMT
> > V7.1/390
> >
[quoted text clipped - 19 lines]
> DB2 SQL Compiler Development
> IBM Toronto Lab

no, it's a new table.  as i say, i can't think of a logical reason for
the the SP to get invalidated, except that this SP (COBOL) seems to
go south with some regularity.  any change seems to do it; what i
haven't been able to find in the docs is a simple list of actions which
invalidate.  or to ask another way:  do SPs always bind to a schema
identity?  that's the level the bind utility runs at, IIRC; so SPs may
invalidate at that level.  if the answer is yes, then adding a trigger
will invalidate.  just don't know.
thanks,
robert

the SP.  on the other hand, if only changing
 
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